01 December 2017
As per me no because if share is hold by a trust than the trust will have the voting right & not the beneficial owner.
And in the book of the company name of the share holder will be trust and not the beneficial owner
05 December 2017
Ans is 'NO'. because only registered holder of the share is lawfully entitled to enjoy the right associated with the shares, such as voting, receiving dividend etc, but practically if he is not the beneficial owner, then he will have to vote according to the directions of the beneficial owner, because benefits accruing from such shares actually belong to beneficial owner as the name" beneficial owner" itself suggests but yes he (beneficial owner) directly doesn't have the right to vote as discussed at a general meeting.
CAclubindia
