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Suppose EPS of A and B are Rs 2 and Rs 3 respectively. A wants to acquire B. Swap ratio-.5:1(1 sh of A for every 2 sh of B)
So wht. will be the equivalent EPS of B after merger. sh.cap. of A and B is 20000 and 30000 respectively.

I have solved in the foll. way.

shareholder of B earns rs3 for 1 share
so they will be earning Rs 6 for 2 shares.

therefore their equivalent EPS will be 6 in the post-merger .

One book has solved this in the foll. way.
Earings of A-40000 and B-90000
shares issued by A-15000.
total no. of shares of merged entity-35000
EPS of merged entity-130000/35000=3.7143
So equivalent EPS of B-3.7143X.5=1.8572
Now pl. tell me which approach is correct.

Dear Sir,

In this case the lease payments are made towards the car under operating lease scheme
The steps followed for the same by the company are:
1. Request for the car placed by the employee.
2. The authorized person approves for the same and the car is taken from Sundaram Finance on Operating Lease.
3. The amount paid towards the same is deducted from the concerned employees’ CTC
4. Treatment of the same transactions in the company:

As operating expenses for the company.
The company is paying FBT on the same.

However the same is nowhere reflected in the salary of the employee.

Doubts:

Since the amount is deducted from the CTC shouldn’t it form a part of salary???

If so the TDS liability on salary of this amount would come into picture.

Please clarify if FBT is applicable or TDS?????