We are GST Registered person. Our client is in foreign country and having their office in foreign country. They gave us a small amount tender, work is in 2-3 cities in India. Now while raising Sales Invoice, do we need to charge GST or not?. Also, do we need to file LUT (Letter of Undertaking? Whether IEC (Import Export code) is needed for filing LUT? Can we file LUT without IEC

Dear Friends,
1. Can a LLP firm with the activity of online commodity trading, pay fixed returns ranging from 8% to 12%, in advance for a period of 1,2 or 5 years, as per choice of their Limited Silent Partners, who are the investing partners of the firm, and will be silent partners in profit only, with no liability for losses if any & no role in the management of the LLP?
2. We see ads on TV by SEBI that it is illegal to promise fixed returns on investments, why is this so and does it apply to partners of an LLP, if formed with this written condition?
My doubt/query is that, if an LLP is formed with the above mentioned earlier condition written in the agreement deed, depending upon the limited silent partner's choice, will it violate the above SEBI's law or any other law of India?
Requesting answers to the above, as I'm a senior commodity trader with over 13 years of experience in the markets and want to start an LLP firm for this, with interested individuals, with minimum investments of Rs 1 lakh and above.
May also respond personally, if required: bsboffice24attherategmaildotcom.
Thanks & Regards to all.
B Singh

Dear Sir,

One of my client has purchased a property and wants to make TDS payment. He has made the payment to the builder in 2 installments. He paid Rs. 32 lacs in Feb 2023 and 32 lacs in March 2023 and has also applied for loan for balance payment to the builder.

My query is do I need to fill Form 26QB separately for each payment made. Also what should be the date of payment I must put for the installment he will receive through loan. Bank is insisting on making entire TDS payment including loan amount.

Please help me in this matter.

Thanks,
Divyesh Jain

Dear Sir,
In our organization in appointment Letter we agree to pay Rs. 300000/- to a employee after completion of 3 years.

We made provision for Retention payable for first two year but we have not yet paid as 3 years yet not complete

Please confirm whether we have to deduct the TDS on this amount in first 2 years. and if we paid the TDS for first 2 years and employee leave the organisation before completion of 3 years. what will be accounting treatment.

thanks in advance

Dear Sir,
My client is providing the Data processing to govt. department for correction and digitization of ration card.
And the work merely using the computer as tool to help perform professional service .
will he exempted to pay service tax.?

Are there any ADDITIONAL ELIGIBILITY required for CA for conducting Statutory Audit?

IF Assessee is Trading In FY 21-22, and Turnover From Option Exceeds 1 Crore then TDS Provision Is Applicable On Him or Not?

Can we opt for Sec115BAC new tax regime while filling revised return for AY 2022-23, if the original return u/s 139(1) was filed under old regime.

1. I have paid 100% property payment to builder. At possession TDS is applicable on 1 year Advance Maintenace & Society development Charges payable to builder which is 100000(1 lac)
2. What value to be shown in while filling form 26 QB.
1.Total value of consideration(Property Value):Rs 1 lac or property value which value to be shown
2.Total Stamp Duty value of property:Rs 1 Lac or property Value which value to be shown?
3.Total Amount Paid or credit currently:1 lac or anything else?
Kindly guide on above point.
Is it to filled under Form 26 QB only or any other head?

Dear Experts,

We have purchased flat in resale from the original buyer. The buyer has paid a fit out deposit to the builder as per the terms and conditions of the sale agreement. While, executing the resale agreement the buyer has transferred all the rights, titles, interests, deposits, membership, advance maintenance etc. to the sellers.
We have carried out interiors as per the guidelines prescribed by the developers and on satisfactory inspection process, we applied for the refund of Fit-out deposit paid by the original buyer. After many attempts and rigorous follow up, to our horror the developer said they have already transferred Fit-out deposit money to the original buyer.
We are following up with the original buyer but now he says he has right on Fit-out deposit and we can not claim it from them.
The terms and conditions of the agreement clearly says everything is transferred to us. But the original buyer is not ready to part with deposit erroneously transferred to him.
What is the legal position in this case and what are the ways to recover the said money?
Experts help is solicited. For record, we have duly submitted all papers including agreement for sale and got no objection certificate from the developers to transfer the said flat in our name one and a half year back.
Thanks and regards.