18 February 2012
1)If I have only one house but could not occupy it because of my job at some other city and the property is remained vacant. Then will this property be treated as let out or Self occupied.
2) Will there be any difference if I am not occupying the property because of my own convenience ( not because of my Employment Purpose at other city).
3) If my self occupied property ( inseparable) is given on rent for 4 month. Then will I have to pay Tax on only 4 months rent. Can I claim 8 months vacency.
18 February 2012
1. if you are not stayed the own house due to employment purpose then your own house can be treated self occupied u/s.23(2)(b) with following conditions
• The assessee must be owner of only one house property. • He is not able to occupy the house property because of his employment, business etc. being away from place where the property is situated. • The property should not have been actually let. • He has to reside at the place of employment in a building not belonging to him [Section 23(2)(b)]. • He does not derive any other benefit from the property not occupied.
2.no such benefit other than employment reasons
3.yes you have eligible to claim vacancy allowance
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