Kindly answer my query. While calculating Rectified PAT (to find out avg. Capital employed) Why don't we consider overvaluation of Stock , despite of the fact that it is an error. Also, please clarify what is the logic behind this formula of deducting 1/2 Rectified PAT from closing Capital Employed to arrive at average capital employed.
Why Overvaluation of closing stock not considered as an error while calculating rectified PAT??? Please Explain. Also , clarify what kind of rectifications are we talking about here??