19 September 2008
The client has a factory at Gandhidham (Gujrat), from where he first transfers his goods to Mumbai warehouse, and then sells his goods to Mumbai customers charging VAT. In this way he avoids CST. Is it correct?
19 September 2008
First thing is that no tax is leviable on goods transfered to some one (agent or himself)other than by way of a sale.
F Form and other evidences are mandatory and onus of proving that the inter state movement was not a sale is on the dealer.
If the ultimate buyer is predetermined or if the tailormade goods (as per specific order of ultimate buyer)is sent via stock transfered, it may be traeted a s sales.
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