15 September 2009
Mr.A (Indain Individual) is importing goods from foreign. The situation is that Mr.A is performing High Ses sale to another buyer which is indian company. The bill of lading have possession in Indian Comapny name but Bill of entry was in possession of Mr.A's name.is it possible..?
the second thing is that Mr. A is reciving commision income not sale of goods income.
either Mr.A is correct for it.
Sales tax department is enforcing Mr. A for showing these transaction as Sale and he has to pay CST on it.
Is it make any diffrence in answer if Mr.A is also a Indian Comapany
15 September 2009
I agree withe the expert , the only criterial has to see the date of High Seas Sales agreement , it should before the goods enter into the Indian custom tererity and before the filling of IGM at the discharge port.
CAclubindia
