VICKY
(CA-Final)
(68 Points)
Replied 16 December 2009
yes A is liable for the voilation of agreement But if The Govt takes the assets under compulsory aquisition & it was above the control of mr. A even then he is liable towards Mr.B. however he can claim to Govt. for compensation.
CA Madhukiran Reddy
(CHARTERED ACCOUNTANT)
(12714 Points)
Replied 16 December 2009
Yes i think shambu nath is right
ALL YOUR LAW RELATED DOUBTS WILL END HERE:
Priyanka
(student)
(29 Points)
Replied 17 December 2009
If property being discussed is Immovable Property then A will be liable to B for spcific compensation.
CA Rahul Khatter
(Chartered accountant)
(97 Points)
Replied 17 December 2009
i m agree with all ......
A will be liable ...
but at the same time govt. should also give compensation to A to terminate the contract with B..
as in ma point of view
Ajay kumar
(assistant)
(481 Points)
Replied 17 December 2009
A IS NOT LIBALE TO B AS PER INDIAN CONTRACT ACT. IF B HAS NOT TAKEN THE POSSESSION.
ramanamma
(CA-Final)
(460 Points)
Replied 17 December 2009
A is liable to B only for compensation becaus both the parties are not know before entering of agrement relating to goods.B claim compensation from A and A claim loss from Govt.
ramanamma
(CA-Final)
(460 Points)
Replied 17 December 2009
In the case of illegal assocation of a company the members are liable ? which amount is liable pls tele me ???
MUKESH SHARMA
(B.Com , MBA, CS*)
(108 Points)
Replied 17 December 2009
| Originally posted by : vishal | ||
 |
A made an agreement to sell with B but before transfer of property goods are taken by Govt. for it's use wheathere A is liable to B |  |
A is not liable for specific performance due to the acq. by govt. but can cliam for the compensation with givt.
CAclubindia
