VICKY
(CA-Final)
(68 Points)
Replied 16 December 2009
yes A is liable for the voilation of agreement But if The Govt takes the assets under compulsory aquisition & it was above the control of mr. A even then he is liable towards Mr.B. however he can claim to Govt. for compensation.
CA Madhukiran Reddy
(CHARTERED ACCOUNTANT)
(12714 Points)
Replied 16 December 2009
Yes i think shambu nath is right
ALL YOUR LAW RELATED DOUBTS WILL END HERE:
Priyanka
(student)
(29 Points)
Replied 17 December 2009
If property being discussed is Immovable Property then A will be liable to B for spcific compensation.
CA Rahul Khatter
(Chartered accountant)
(97 Points)
Replied 17 December 2009
i m agree with all ......
A will be liable ...
but at the same time govt. should also give compensation to A to terminate the contract with B..
as in ma point of view
Ajay kumar
(assistant)
(481 Points)
Replied 17 December 2009
A IS NOT LIBALE TO B AS PER INDIAN CONTRACT ACT. IF B HAS NOT TAKEN THE POSSESSION.
ramanamma
(CA-Final)
(460 Points)
Replied 17 December 2009
A is liable to B only for compensation becaus both the parties are not know before entering of agrement relating to goods.B claim compensation from A and A claim loss from Govt.
ramanamma
(CA-Final)
(460 Points)
Replied 17 December 2009
In the case of illegal assocation of a company the members are liable ? which amount is liable pls tele me ???
MUKESH SHARMA
(B.Com , MBA, CS*)
(108 Points)
Replied 17 December 2009
| Originally posted by : vishal | ||
 |
A made an agreement to sell with B but before transfer of property goods are taken by Govt. for it's use wheathere A is liable to B |  |
A is not liable for specific performance due to the acq. by govt. but can cliam for the compensation with givt.
25 Hours GST Scrutiny of Return and Notice Handling(With Recording)
Survey, Search and Seizure under Income Tax Act 1961
CAclubindia
