CA final SFM May 2018

Page no : 5

Kushan koradia (Nsnsjs) (37 Points)
Replied 05 May 2018

also is this correct for factoring sum?

under DONT FACTOR approach: 

1) Average Drs= 12* of 540 lac = 64.8 lac. Interest thereon at 8%= 5,18,400

2) Bad debts= 525000

3) admin cost= 125000. 

Total Cost= 11,68,000

 

Under YES FACTORING:

1) Baddebts=0

2) Admin Cost= 0

3) Interest to factorer= 540 lac* 80%*30/365*12.6%= 447386

4) Own Interest - 540 lac*20%*30/365*8%= 71014

 

Total= 518400.

Therefore net benefit cause of factoring = 6.5 lac and hence factoring should be used.

1 Like

Kushan koradia (Nsnsjs) (37 Points)
Replied 05 May 2018

for forex sum 1a) is this correct?

Usd-inr rate = 49.3700+0.1100/49.3800+0.13= 49.48/49.51

usd-sgd rate= 1.7058+0.0096/1.7068+0.0097= 1.7154/1.7165.

 

cross rate= usd/inr (ask) divide by usd-sgd (bid) = 49.51/1.7154= 28.8621 + 0.05( exchange margin) = 28.9121*500000= 14456050.



(Guest)
Originally posted by : sunil kumar jha
total floating rs.45 cr and mps is rs 150 so no.of share is 30 lakhs

so make it 75% so 100% is 40 lakhs

hence 10 lakhs share needs to be issue to make promoter holding 75%

 

Hope help you.

No bro, whatever you said shows that you have assumed present promoter holding is 100% so you are reducing it to 75% but already mentioned in the question that free flot is 45 crore, that means promoter dont hold 100% there something between 75-100%. That figure is missing in the question paper. we can assume from 76% to 99% but we cant assume 100% because already there is free flote, if you assume 100% present holding then how free flote can be valued as 45cr.


Vijay Chandran (2 Points)
Replied 05 May 2018

By considering capitalization rate as rate of capitalization on the free float market stock..we get total market value of 225 crores.. 45 crores/150 rs we get the no of shares held in free float..225 crores/150 we get the total shares..total-free float/total= promoters contribution..Need to take assumption..I got promoter contribution as 80 percent..Anyways. It can be solved in assumptions only..All the best for remaiing exams. Matter will be taken to institute,stop thinking about SFM and carry on..All the very best

 


vaibhav bhandari (student) (25 Points)
Replied 05 May 2018

Yes qstn was incomplete. Now two possibilities are there:

1) full marks to students who have calculated atleast EPS.( By using P/E=1/KE)(VERY RARE CASE), or

2) Students must have taken an assumption of free float share %, then marks on basis of that assumption(MOST LIKELY)

 

All the best



vaibhav bhandari (student) (25 Points)
Replied 05 May 2018

Sory to say but your post is showing how much insecure you are.How much weak you are.

My freind exam is over, now concentrate on next one.

You cannot change it now.


Dip Choksi (2 Points)
Replied 05 May 2018

Yes I had the same answers in the Mutual Fund Question. 95,31 and 68 days


Neekita (Student CA Final ) (7 Points)
Replied 05 May 2018

me too...got the same answer.

1 Like

Mritunjay Kumar Sinha (tester) (51 Points)
Replied 05 May 2018

Question 5(b) is not wrong:

Solution:

 Value of floating stock: 45 crore

Market Price per share: Rs 150

Hence No of shares available in Market: 45Crore/150 => 30 Lacs

Capitalization Rate= 20%

Hence total no of shares available: 30Lacs/20% => 150 Lacs

Promoters Holding => 80%

  1. Bonus Ratio:

Let bonus ratio be b

 

(30+30b)/(150+30b)=.25 

=> b=1/3

  1. MPS after issue of bonus shares

 

let the MPS be M

 

Let profit after tax be P

 

EPS = P/150

P/E Ratio = MPS/EPS = 150/(P/150) = 22500/P

 

EPS After Bonus Issue = P/(120+30+30/3) = P/160

P/E Ratio after Bonus Issue = M/(P/160) = 160M/P

 

Since P/E Ratio is same

Hence 160M/P = 22500/P => M = 140.625

 

  1. Free Float Market Capitalization = 40lacs * 140.625 = 56.25 Crore

 

1 Like

KRISHNA (employee) (257 Points)
Replied 05 May 2018

This is abolutely right..no change in value of firm..


KRISHNA (employee) (257 Points)
Replied 05 May 2018

Swap ratio is .175...preliminary exp must be deducted..shares issued 2.625 crs
2 Like

BANTY KUSHWAHA (CA FINAL) (108 Points)
Replied 06 May 2018

it was Technical....


Ajit Hegde (CA - Final) (1367 Points)
Replied 06 May 2018

Floating stock itself is to be assumed as total sh cap. Hence you can solve it

Kanishka Roy (CA Final Student) (46 Points)
Replied 07 May 2018

from where did u get 80% promoter holding data Sir....did you assume it....further what is the difference between No of shares available in market and total no of shares available....promoters holding may not be free float but that doesnt mean they are not listed in the market....kindly enlighten us

1 Like


Mritunjay Kumar Sinha (tester) (51 Points)
Replied 07 May 2018

Originally posted by : Kanishka Roy
from where did u get 80% promoter holding data Sir....did you assume it....further what is the difference between No of shares available in market and total no of shares available....promoters holding may not be free float but that doesnt mean they are not listed in the market....kindly enlighten us

No, I have not assumed it. Since the capitalization rate is given as 20%, then with this it can be found out the total number of shares issued by the company. Number of shares are floating in the market means, out of the issued capital, 20% were issued in the IPO or in the OFS and the remaining shares (out of the issued capital) are still with promoters. 

 

For more details please refer: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/markets/stocks/news/free-float-market-capitalisation-determines-index-weightage/articleshow/58178327.cms



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