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very urgent

sucheta (cs inter and CA FINAL student) (598 Points)

16 November 2010

Suppose Mr. A sells goods to ORISSA but the billing is done at MAHARASHTRA to MR. B. .But the goods were all sold while in transport and MR. B then sends the bill to ORISSA. So will MR. B have to send the same BILL to ORISSA or he has to raise a new bill?????????

Plz do reply friends its very urgent,,,,,,,,,,,,

Thanks.

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3 Replies

CA Dhiraj Ramchandani (CA, M. com) (10823 Points)
Replied 16 November 2010

if mr. B is sending goods at his branch in orrissa, no need to issue new bill.. But if he dispatches such goods to any other entity, he needs to raise a new bill ofcoarse...

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Ravi Prasad (Self employed) (148 Points)
Replied 16 November 2010

Presuming that "A" is a dealer in Maharastra sells goods to "B" who is also in Maharastra and the purchasing dealer "B" sells the goods to another dealer "C" in Orissa, then "B" raises a Sale bill in the name of "C" and retains the bill issued by "A" to him with himself. He just endorses the Lorry Receipt and other documents in favour of "C". "B" has to obtain C Form from "C" and "E-1" form from "A" and claim exemption of the CST. He also must issue "C" form to "A".

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