"A" is a manufacturer , sells goods to its holding company i.e"B",
my question is, am i correct
if B uses these goods as input, Valuation has to be done at 110%,
and "B" does the trading of the said goods, valuation has to be done at the sale value of "B"
Similarly, it is also noticed that A, sells good to B, at the lower rate then it sells to independent buyer.
for A the assessable value would be the value on which B sells goods to unrelated buyer. and duty payable on that value only
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