Dear All,
As per Income TAx ACt, Owner of the house property means not only the legal owner i.e. the person in whose name the property stands, but also :
The person who has transferred the property without adequate consideration to his/her spouse (otherwise than in connection with an agreement to live apart) or to a minor child, not being a married daughter. in this context judical rulings:
Following the decision of the Apex Court in the case of CIT v. Poddar Cement(P) ltd(1997) 226 ITR 625(SC) , Iy must be held that for the purpose of this section , owner is a person who is entittled to receive income from property in his own right and the requirement of registration of sale deed under
the idian registration Act,1908 in the context o section is not warranted-R J wood v CIT(2002) 121n Taxman 476 (Delhi).
In this ruling /Judgement I think husband can claim the deduction if the property stand in the name of wife.
Other views in the context is also welcome.
Please clarify.
Thanks
Parmod