Prithi
(Student)
(166 Points)
Replied 31 December 2009
CA Nitin Wadhwani
(Chartered Accountant)
(4469 Points)
Replied 31 December 2009
The answer is in the afirmative as supported by the case law.
J.K.Shahi
(Service)
(44 Points)
Replied 01 January 2010
shailendra
(C.A. FINAL)
(189 Points)
Replied 01 January 2010
Thankyou shahi sir for such a detailed explanation and quoting the case laws. But it's a very debatable issue.
CA Jayesh Gokalgandhi
(CA in Industry)
(126 Points)
Replied 06 January 2010
@ Shailendra following is my understanding of the example quoted by you:
Mircrosoft own a software called NAVISION and has created infinite number of licenses which it can issue for usage of this software by it buyers. In effect it has multiplied one unique software into infinite unique softwares.
A license, say A0001, once sold to Mr. X cannot be again sold to Mr. Y, but it can sell license number A0002 to Mr. Y. Each such sale of license becomes payment of royalty to the owner of the software for using the software for any specified period of time.
Hence, when Mr. X is making payment of the license fees he needs to deduct TDS under Section 194J.
@ J.K.Shahi AMC is a totally different contract and should not be mixed with license payment.
shailendra
(C.A. FINAL)
(189 Points)
Replied 07 January 2010
Dear jayesh sir,
In your case Microsoft holds infinite number of licenses of the same software. According to me License no. is only a medium to differentiate between the users of the software. Only a license number cant be the basis of holding that the payment are made for the exclusive rights of the software. I think exclusive rights means what one person is using, the other person don't have the option to use it. It's only the end use is to be seen and not the license number which is only a medium to differentiate between users.
CA Jayesh Gokalgandhi
(CA in Industry)
(126 Points)
Replied 07 January 2010
@ shailendra Pls. note that in the eyes of law each and every license is a different product altogether, it is not merely a differentiator. If you see from Mircosoft's point of view, how will it show these sale of licenses. Can it argue that only the first sale is towards royalty and balance are all capital receipts?
Your arguement may be valid for a customised software which is built according to specification of each individual buyer. Sale of such software may be termed as sale of goods and hence not fall under perview of TDS.
deepak sharma
(accounts executive)
(21 Points)
Replied 22 April 2010
GOPAL R. JHANVAR
(CA)
(30 Points)
Replied 27 January 2011
deduct tds u/s 194J to avoid unneccesary litigations. Refer to Section 194J (c) "royatly" and Explanation 2 to section 9(1)(vi) for your answer.
Bhaskaran Chackrapani Warrier
(Chartered Accountant)
(80235 Points)
Replied 26 June 2012
This is a usage-based payment made by one party (the "licensee") to another (the "licensor") which comes under the term " royalty" and accordingly section 194J attracts.
kishor
(Tax Executive)
(27 Points)
Replied 23 January 2014