Sec.224A is very clear on this issue and there is no reason for any confusion. If you ask yourself following questions, the position will be clear:
1) Whether your co. is a govt. co.?
(Answer is 'No' because holding of govt. does not exceed 50%).
2) Whether at least 25% shares of subsidiary are held by a govt. co.?
(Answer is obviously 'No' since your co. is not govt. co.)
3) Whether at least 25% shares of subsidiary are held by the govt. directly?
(Answer is obviously 'No' since govt. is not holding any shares in the subsidiary.)
If the answer to above questions is 'No', then how Sec.224A can get attracted in this case?