Ca Finalists..
any budy tell us how was today SFM paer?
Hope for Best to all.
Kanhaiya
(Treasury)
(245 Points)
Replied 03 November 2012
tough paper no questions from leasing, capital budgeting. ... paper is full of m&a, valuation of business
M. N. JHA
(CA)
(8316 Points)
Replied 03 November 2012
CA Rahul Sharma
(Asisstant Manager Finance)
(697 Points)
Replied 03 November 2012
any one plzzz tell dat in Q 2a whether defered tax asset is to be taken or not in net assets.
& in interest coverage ratio whether working capital loan is to be taen or not.?????????????
*RENU SINGH *
(✩ §m!ℓ!ñġ €ม€§ fℓม!ñġ ђ♪gђ✩ )
(21627 Points)
Replied 04 November 2012
soothing wrds ....sfm paper was easy ..
in last attempt, sfm was bit tough ...
let's see how it goes in our attempt
CA Rahul Sharma
(Asisstant Manager Finance)
(697 Points)
Replied 04 November 2012
thnx pranita, i hav also same opinion n do that in exam bt not very sure, well hope it will b right
agar right hua to maja aa jaega.......
CA Saket Mittal
(BUSINESSMAN)
(99 Points)
Replied 04 November 2012
manoj kanthi
(Asst.General Manager-Treasury)
(99 Points)
Replied 05 November 2012
hey guy,
some solution of some particular ques on SFM. This is only one of possible soln, there can be other possible solution also. since i Handle forex and treasury product in my job i tried to solve this question
1 a) Walters model
P= D+ (E-D) r/ke
Ke
= 1.5 + (6-1.5)0.20/0.10
0.10
=105
1b) Current price = Face value x (1- D x days to maturity)
360
= 100 x (1- 0.08 x 90/360)
= 100 x (1- 0.02)
= 98
Bond Equivalent yield = Face value- current price x 360
Current price Maturity period
= (100-98 )/98 x 360/90
= 8.16%
Or
= Discount rate .
1- (Disc. Rate x days to maturity)
360
= 0.08
1- (0.08 x 90/360)
= 0.08/0.98
= 8.16%
1d)
i) since the base currency (USD) interest rate is lower than variable currency(INR) the Base Currency( USD) should always command premium over Variable currency(INR). So US Dollar will be at premium in Indian Forex Market.
ii) F = (1+rv) F is the forward rate and S is the spot rate rv = Interest rate
S (1+rb) of variable currency, rb=Interest rate of base currency
F = (1+0.10 x 6/12)
55.50 (1+0.04 x 6/12)
F = (1.05)
55.50 (1.02)
Forward rate for 6 month is 57.13
Premia % = = F – S x 12 x 100
S n
= (57.13 -55.50)/55.50 x 12/6 x 100
= 5.87%
3a)
Expected price(A) |
Prob (B) |
Product (Ax B) |
Value of (C) |
Expected value of call (B x C) |
120 |
0.05 |
6 |
0 |
0 |
140 |
0.20 |
28 |
0 |
0 |
160 |
0.50 |
80 |
10 |
5 |
180 |
0.10 |
18 |
30 |
3 |
190 |
0.15 |
28.5 |
40 |
6 |
Expected value after 4 month |
160.50 |
|
14 |
3b) option of paying in 60 days
Outflow ($ 2000000 x 57.10) 114,200,000.00
Option of paying in 90 days
outflow for invoice 2000000.00
outflow for interest
($2000000 x 0.08 x 30/360*) 13333.33
Total outflow $2013333.33 x 57.50 115,766,666.48
Outflow at 60th day
$2000000 x 57.10 = 114,200,000
Interest for 30 days
(114200000 x 0.10x 30/365*) 938630 115,138,630.00
(payment will be paid to supplier on 60th day by taking loan from bank)
Option of paying on 60th day is definitely better, but if the Z Ltd. does
not have own fund to remit USD to supplier on 60th day and have to
decide whether to take Bank loan or suppliers credit for another 30 days
then option of taking bank loan is better as outflow is less
* basis for calculating interest in USD is 30/360 and in INR is 30/365)
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