Sir/Madam,
One property was co-owned by husband and wife which was purchased 20 yrs back. This property was disclosed in the books of husband only.
In the current year this property is sold,now my question is how treatment of sale will be given effect?
Should it be shown in both co-owners,the consideration which is received for the same?
If it is to be shown then,can the wife get benefit of cost of the property?
Are there any relevant case laws for this particular treatment?
Please reply asap.
Thanking You in Advance.