Dear All!
Please help me with this query..
My client (A Ltd) pays security charges to another B (Firm). With effect from 8th August, 2012 reverse charge applies and therefore while paying B, A Ltd should pay only 25% of the service tax amount and pay the balance 75% directly to the government. Also, A Ltd is eligible to take credit on this 75% of service tax amount only on payment basis. However, my client contends that his supplier B (Firm) raises 100% of service tax amount in the invoice. And A Ltd makes payment of the 100% of service tax to B who is now responsible to remit the same to government. My Query:
a) Is A Ltd eligible to take credit on the entire 100% of service tax which the Supplier (B) has raised in the invoice?
b) If Yes, does it hold good even when A Ltd has not made payment to B?
Thanks in Advance!