Dear all,
Please advice me on the following...
Mr. x owns 2 houseproperties. He has been residing in one (say HP-1) for the whole year and the other one has been vacant (HP-2) for the whole year.
As per my understanding since HP-1 is self occupied for the whole year, the GAV is Nil.
HP-2 is deemed to be let out. If so since loss due to vacancy is the actual rent receivable, the GAV is 'Nil' .
Hence in this case is Mr. X not liable to pay tax on income from HP?.