Jaya (Others) (87 Points)
06 September 2020Dear All,
I own 2 houses A and B in the same city and I stay in house A and the other house B is laying vacant.
I am paying EMI for home loan for house A interest of 250000 and principal amt 200000 INR
House B is free from all loans.
Can I show both houses to be as Self-Occipied or should house B be considered deemed let out? How should I proceed for income from house property?
The question is with respect to AY 2020-21.
Thanks
Jaya
CA Raj Doshi
(Practising CA)
(8924 Points)
Replied 06 September 2020
Jaya
(Others)
(87 Points)
Replied 06 September 2020
I read this in some site.
A self-occupied property means a property which is occupied throughout the year by the owner for his residence. Thus, a property not occupied by the owner for his residence cannot be treated as a self occupied property. However, there is one exception to this rule. If the following conditions are satisfied, then the property can be treated as self-occupied and the annual value of a property will be "Nil", even though the property is not occupied by the owner throughout the year for his residence :
(a) The taxpayer owns a property;
(b) Such property cannot actually be occupied by him owing to his employment, business or profession carried on at any other place and he has to reside at that other place in a building not owned by him;
(c) The property mentioned in (a) above (or part thereof) is not actually let out at any time during the year;
(d) No other benefit is derived from such property.
If the above criteria need to be satisfied then how do I apply this to my scenario to get the best benefit.
Thanks,
Jaya
CAclubindia
