1. It is not clear who is deciding the price, what is the basis for determination of the same? ---- The Co. had calculated the fair value of Intangible Asset as estimated cost plus a reasonable profit margin.
2. Who is operating the asset? ----- The Asset is operated by The Co. Itself. As per the Agreement with Panchayat it has been expressly clarified that the possession is only given to gram panchayat, while the exclusive title deeds remain with the Pvt. Co.
3. if plant is not available for production, who will bear the risk? Whether the co. will receive any payment towards fixed cost recovery? --- All the plant costs are incurred by the Co. itself.
4. If plant is available but no sale takes place, who will bear the risk? Whether any payment will be made towards fixed cost? ---- Untill the time of agreeement the company recoginises the cost as intangible asset and hence is accounted in the books of accounts. there are no payments received by the co. from panchayat towads fixed costs. At the end of the agreement period, the plant is only transferred but is not sold to gram panchayat.
5. After 10 years at the time of tranfer of asset back to the panchayat, is there any consideration for the same? --- No consideration is not received from Panchayat. It is only a transfer....
6. Whether company can sell the plant to a third party before 10 years? --- As per the agreement the company cant sell to third party.
7. Whether the water can be used for the captive consumption by the co.? --- The company doesn't come under the purview of Excise. Either ways, the company doesn;t use the water for captive consumption. (im not sure on this but will confirm you).
Further to the above, i have a query.
The company at the end of 10yrs only transfers the WC to Panchayat. The consideration is also not paid by the panchayat at the end of 10th year.
The company tells that, it can recognise the cost of asset as revenue as per IFRIC 12 at Fair Value.
I dont have a very good knowledge on IFRIC 12, and hence i posted this in CCI for quick response. As far as any accounting convention goes, my doubt is as to why would a Company recognise revenue for which there wont be any consideration ??? Just because IFRIC 12 says that Cost (fair value) can be recognised as revenue in the books of accounts, can the company do so?? I need a good opinion on this to enable me to conduct the audit properly.
Thank you for the replies so far....
Awaiting your reply.