applying Gordon Dividend Model, the answers will be as follows:
1) P0 =60; D0=4; Ke=12%; g=?? D1=D0(1+g)
Now, P0= D1/(Ke-g)
Solving by putting values, you will get g=5%
2) Let intial price of share be Rs. P
Thus dividend payable comes out to be 0.05P
Now put these values in above formula, you will get g=7%
3) D1= EPS x (1-retention ratio)
=>D1=10(1-0.6) = Rs.4
Ke=15%
Now g=retention ratio * ROE i.e. 60*10% =6%
Put these values in above formula to get value of share = Rs. 44.44
4) As explained above g=retention ratio * ROE
Thus 6%=30 * ROE
Solving you get ROE=20%
Now EPS of current year = diving expected to be paid / (1-retention ratio)
i.e EPS = 7/70% = 10
growth rate= 6%, thus EPS next year will be 10*106% =Rs. 10.60