becuase there is no service tax on 60% of bill value but only on 40% as per RCM rule in case of abatement.....and another thing is that service receiver liabilty becomes to be same in both the cases whether its abated or non abated.....
i just gave an example.. but if SP is availing exemption limit of Rs.10 lac then also there is a liability of service provider to pay 40% of service tax..
I am confused over how to decide whether the SP is using Abated valur or Non-abated value!! i.e. if we decide on the basis of Invoice then there exists a chance where he might not be availaing Abated value and still wont charge ST on it.
I faced same case in my articleship and was unable to decide except to call the SP and ask him.
Precisely the same thing has also been said by CA Raj Kumar (IDT faculty ETEN Delhi) but this was my question and I am still waiting for his response on the same.
Ankita
In any way you have to pay ST on 40% of the value under reverse charge. As in case of abatement ST is payable on 40% of value and in case of non-abatement 40% ST is payable under reverse charge.
Satya Sir
I am confused over availability of rs 10 lacs exemption once in a lifetime. I think its available on the basis of status of assessee based on his turnover in each prev financial year. And nowhere its written its available once in a lifetime.
From July 2012 Service tax pay liability under rent a cab is of service reciver. But due to not knowledgement Service Tax Provider & Reciver both have paid service tax @ 12.36*40% of service. Now Can Service Provider can take such amount refunf from service tax department.
Dear All, Kindly read my Article on Rent a Cab Service which is also published in R.K. Jain's Service Tax Review STR issue dated 01-06-2014 (Volume: 34, Part 5) 2014 (34) STR J153