Dear friends,
if a person i.e husband acquires some property in year 1976 and after that transfer 50% of his share in his wife's name in year 2001 under some scheme of administration where, without consideration a person can transfer his/her immoveable property to his/her relatives, and subsequently wife sells her share which she got in 2001 for specific consideration.
My question is :-What would be the date of acquisition for computation of capital gain on such property?
Waiting for your worthy response
Thanks in advance..
Sanjeev Kalra