1. If a company issued 1,00,000 shares of Rs.10
each in consideration of net assets of
Rs.12,00,000, an amount of Rs.2,00,000 is
credited to _____
a) Capital Reserve A/c b) Good will A/c
c) Revaluation A/c d) P & L A/c
2. If assets of Rs.60,000 are purchased and shares
of Rs.10 each are issued at a premium of 20%,
the no. of shares to be issued is _____
a) 60,000 b) 50,000 c) 6,000 d) 5,000
3. Purchases Rs.90,000
Sales Rs.80,000
Profit 20% of sales
Closing stock?
a) 10,000 b) 20,000 c) 6,000 d) 26,000
4. 5,000 units of goods costing Rs.40 each are
consigned. Carriage inward Rs.25,000. Normal
loss is 10%.
Cost of each unit of goods is:
a) 40 b) 45.50 c) 50 d) 50.50
5. If one of the cars purchased by a car dealer is
used for business purpose, instead of resale,
then it should be recorded by_____
a) Dr Drawing A/c & Cr Purchases A/c
b) Dr Office Expenses A/c & Cr Motor Car A/c
c) Dr Motor Car A/c & Cr Purchases A/c
d) Dr Motor Car & Cr Sales A/c
6. Insurance premium paid by a firm on the life
insurance policy of the partners will be ______
a) Debited to Capital A/c’s of partners
b) Credited to Partners Capital A/c’s
c) Debited to Profit and Loss A/c
d) Credited to Profit and Loss A/c
7. If wages are paid for construction of business
premises ______ A/c is credited and _____ A/c
is debited.
a) Wages, Cash b) Premises, Cash
c) Cash, Wages d) Cash, Premises
8. If depreciation is excess charged by Rs.500 and
closing stock is understated by Rs.500, the net
profit will be _____ due to these errors
a) Understated by Rs.500
b) Understated by Rs.1000
c) Overstated by Rs.1000 d) No effect
9. After re-issue of forfeited shares, the profit
remaining in the Share forfeiture A/c is
transferred to_____
a) Profit & Loss A/c b) Share Capital A/c
c) General Reserve A/c d) Capital Reserve A/c
10. The revenue for transaction of consignment
sale is recognized.
a) When goods are sold to customers by
consignee.
b) When goods are sent to consignee
c) When advance against delivery is received
by consignor d) When consignor
received the payment from consignee
11. Rent due for the month of March will appear
in the cash book _______
a) On the Receipts side
b) On the payments side
c) As Contra entry d) No where
12. Debit notes issued are used to prepare _____
a) Sales Returns Book
b) Purchase Returns Book
c) Journal Proper d) Purchases Book
13. When shares are issued for purchase of assets,
____ is credited.
a) Vendors A/c b) Assets A/c
c) Share Capital A/c d) Bank A/c
14. Liability for bill discounted is a______
a) Short term liability b) Long term liability
c) Current liability d) Contingent liability
15. P sold goods to Q for Rs. 2,00,000. Q paid cash
Rs.60,000, P allowed a discount of 2% on the
balance. What is the amount of the bill drawn
by P on Q.
a) 1,96,000 b) 1,37,200
c) 1,40,000 d) 1,36,000
16. A partnership firm can raise its capital.
a) By issue of cumulative preference shares
b) By issue of participating preference shares
c) By issue of Non – convertible preference
shares d) None of the above.
17. A machinery was sold for Rs.30,000 on credit.
In which subsidiary book this transaction
should be recorded?
a) Sales Book b) Cash Book
c) Journal Proper d) No entry is required.
18. The debts written off as bad, subsequently
collected by the proprietor and retained by
him for his personal use. What is the
accounting treatment for this transaction?
a) Debit Drawings A/c & Credit Debtors A/c
b) Debit Cash A/c & Credit Bad debts
recovered A/c
c) Simply ignore the Transaction
d) Debit Drawings A/c & Credit Bad debts
recovered A/c
19. Mr. A purchased a car on 1.6.10 for
Rs.5,60,000 and incurred Rs.25,000 for
registration. He paid Rs.10,000 for insurance
and Rs.1,500 for petrol. What amount should
be debited to Car A/c.
a) 5,60,000 b) 5,96,000
c) 5,95,000 d) 5,85,000
20. Balance in Share Forfeiture A/c is shown in the
Balance Sheet under the head.
a) Share Capital b) Reserves & Surplus
c) Current liabilities d) Provisions
21. Loss on issue of debentures is treated as:
a) Miscellaneous expenditure
b) Intangible assets.
c) Current Assets d) Current Liability
22. Which of the following is not a Real Account?
a) Cash A/c b) Investments A/c
c) Out standing rent A/c d) Purchases A/c
23. Interest payable on debentures is _____
a) An appropriation of profit
b) A Charge against profit
c) Transferred to sinking fund.
d) Treated as miscellaneous expenses to be
shown in the balance sheet.
24. Bills Payable A/c is shown in the balance sheet
under the head ______
a) Provision b) Reserves & Surplus
c) Secured loans d) Current liabilities
25. Human resources will not appear in t
balance sheet according to ______ concept.
a) Accrual b) Going concern
c) Money measurement concept
d) None
26. Working capital is _____
a) Current assets – current liabilities
b) Fixed assets – fixed liabilities
c) Fixed assets - current liabilities
d) Current assets – fixed liabilities
27. Profit or Loss on the sale of fixed assets
transferred to ____
a) Profit & Loss A/c b) Capital Reserve A/
c) Revaluation A/c d) Capital A/c
28. Provision for discount on debtors is calculat
on the amount of debtors.
a) Before deducting provision for doubtf
debts.
b) After deducting provision for doubtf
debts.
c) Before deducting actual debts and provisio
for doubtful debts.
d) After adding actual bad and doubtful debts
29. X of Delhi purchased machinery from Y
Chennai for Rs.10,00,000. He paid freight of R
2,00,000 and excise duty of Rs.1,00,000. H
used the machinery in his business. At the en
of the year he charged depreciation
Rs.1,50,000. The market value of the machi
was estimated at Rs.15,00,000. At what val
the machine should be shown in the balan
sheet at the end of the year.
a) 13 lakhs b) 13.5 lakhs
c) 11.5 lakhs d) 15 lakhs
30. Salary paid Rs. 15,000 to a partner will appear
in _____
a) Note on account b) Revaluation A/c
c) Profit & Loss appropriation A/c
d) Trading A/c
31. Purchase of goods for Rs.13,500 has been
recorded as Rs.13,000 in the purchases book.
This is _____
a) Error of omission
b) Error of commission
c) Error of Principle d) None
32. Value of goods withdrawn by the proprietor
for his personal use should be credited to ____
a) Capital A/c b) Sales A/c
c) Drawings A/c d) Purchases A/c
33. __ is shown as foot note under the Balance
Sheet.
a) Contingent asset b) Contingent liability
c) Fixed asset d) None
34. Bills received discounted by the drawer will be
recorded by the drawee in _____
a) Journal b) Ledger
c) Trial Balance d) No where
35. M/s Stationery Mart will debit the purchase of
stationery to _______
a) Purchases A/c b) General Expenses A/c
c) Stationery A/c d) None
36. A Bill is drawn for 3 months on May 12. The
due date of the bill date is ______
a) 15th August b) 14th August
c) 16th August d) 12th August
37. Machinery was purchased for Rs.5,00,000 on
1.4.2008. W.D.V. after 3 years of depreciation
at 10% p.a. under W.D.V. method will be ___.
a) 4,50,000 b) 4,05,000
c) 3,54,500 d) 3,64,500
38. A, B, C and D are partners sharing profits &
losses equally. After one year they decided to
share profits in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1 : 1.
D’s sacrifice is________
a) 1/24 b) 1/12 c) 1/10 d) 1/6
39. After recording the transactions and events in
Journal and Subsidiary Books, they will be
transferred to ____
a) Ledger b) Trading A/c
c) Profit & Loss A/c d) Balance Sheet
40. XYZ Ltd has a house of 3 years old. It is used as
guest house. It incurred an expenditure of Rs.
2.5 lakhs for its repairs. The nature of this
expense is ______
a) Capital Expenditure
b) Revenue Expenditure
c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
d) None of these
41. Which of the following is incorrect?
a) Good will → intangible asset
b) Sundry debtors→ current asset
c) Loose tools → tangible fixed asset
d) Out standing expenses → current asset.
42. Balance of Goods Sent on Consignment is
transferred to ____
a) Trading A/c b) P & L A/c
c) Consignee A/c d) Consignor A/c
43. In case of Reducing Balance Method
depreciation is calculated on _____
a) Original Cost
b) Original Cost – Depreciation
c) Market value d) W.D.V
44. Goods worth Rs.5,000 were supplied to Mr. X
at an invoice price of 20% above cost and
allowed trade discount at 10% on invoice price.
The amount of sale will be Rs.____
a) 5,400 b) 5,500 c) 5,625 d) 6,600
45. Prepaid expenses of Rs.1000/- shown in the
trial balance will appear in _____
a) Liabilities side of balance sheet
b) Dr. Side of P & L A/c
c) Dr. Side of P & L Appropriation A/c
d) Assets side of Balance Sheet.
46. XYZ Ltd. follows W.D.V. Method of depreciation
year after year, due to ____ concept.
a) Consistency b) Convenience
c) Comparability d) Conservatism
47. Rs. 30 paid on postage is shown in which
subsidiary book.
a) Purchases Book b) Cash Book
c) Petty Cash Book d) None
48. Small items like, pencils, pens, files, etc. are
written off within a year according to _ concept.
a) Materiality b) consistency
c) Conservatism d) Realisation
49. Net profit of a firm is Rs. 5000/-. Interest on
capital & drawings still not recorded are
Rs.5,000 & Rs.2,500 respectively. Net profit
available for the distribution among the
partners will be Rs.___
a) 7,500 b) 5,000 c) 2,500 d) Nil
50. Deferred Revenue Expenditure to the extent
not written off is shown in the balance sheet
under ___
a) Miscellaneous expenses
b) Capital c) Current Liabilities
d) Fixed Asset
51. Business enterprise is separate from its owner
according to _____ concept.
a) Money measurement concept
b) Matching concept
c) Entity concept d) Dual aspect concept
52. Which of the following expenses will not be
included in the acquisition cost of plant?
a) Purchase price of plant
b) Installation expenses
c) Annual maintenance charges
d) Delivery charges.
53. Which account will be prepared at the time of
admission of a new partner for giving effect of
changes in the values of assets & liabilities in
the old balance sheet?
a) Profit & Loss A/c b) Revaluation A/c
c) Memorandum Revaluation A/c
d) Realisation A/c
54. On the admission of a new partner, which one
of the following in the Balance sheet should be
transferred to the Capital A/c’s of the old
partners in old profit sharing ratio?
a) Bank O.D. b) General Reserve
c) Bills payable d) Outstanding expenses
55. When there is no partnership deed among the
partners, the partner is allowed to get ____
a) 15% interest on loan
b) 8% interest on loan
c) 6% interest on loan d) No interest
56. The policy of anticipate no profit and provide
for all possible losses arise due to the concept
of _____
a) Consistency b) Disclosure
c) Conservatism d) Matching
57. In case of death of a partner, the goodwill is to
be distributed to the deceased partner as per _
a) Gaining Ratio b) Sacrificing Ratio
c) New Ratio d) Old Ratio
58. Which of the following statements is false?
a) Partnership deed is a mutual agreement
among the partners
b) In the absence of agreement, partners share
the profits equally.
c) Profit & Loss appropriation account is
prepared to show the distribution of profits
among the partners.
d) The liability of the partners is limited.
59. Preliminary expenses will be shown in ____
a) Trading A/c – debit side
b) Profit & Loss Appropriation A/c – debit side
c) Balance sheet – liabilities side
d) Balance sheet – assets side
Part B – Mercantile Laws
60. Ordinary damages are collected on breach of
contract.
a) True b) False
61. Pre – contractual impossibility is also known as
a) Initial Impossibility
b) Supervening impossibility
c) Actual Impossibility d) None
62. __ arises when obligations are created without
a contract.
a) Quasi Contract
b) Wagering Agreement
c) Contingent Contract d) None
63. The criminal act involves in ____
a) Undue Influence b) Coercion
c) Misrepresentation d) All of the above
64. By transfer of partner’s interest then the ____
a) Partner does not ceases to be a partner
b) Partner ceases to be a partner
c) Has a right to share profit d) None
65. Partner expelled because of personal issues of
partners with him then it is___
a) Valid b) Void c) Voidable d) None
66. A contract which is based on the principles of
equity, justice and good conciseness is called:
a) anticipatory contract
b) contingent contract
c) quasi contract d) wagering agreement
67. Voidable contract is one which is :
a) Not enforceable by Law
b) Enforceable at the option of both the parties
c) Enforceable only with the permission of
court.
d) Enforceable at the option of one or more
parties but not at the option of other or others
68. A Boy of 21 years for whose property a
guardian has been appointed for entering in to
contract with respect to minor’s property is __
a) valid b) voidable c) void d) none
69. Some or all terms of a contract is cancelled in _
a) Novation b) Alteration
c) Merger d) Recission
70. Consideration must move at the desire of
a) Promisor b) Promisee
c) Any other person d) Any of these
71. Consensus-ad-idem means:
a) General Consensus
b) Reaching of Contract
c) Reaching of an Agreement
d) Meeting of Minds upon the same thing in
the sense of goods
72. If the buyer receives excess delivery then he
may ____
a) Reject the total goods
b) Accept the total goods
c) Accept or Reject the total goods
d) Any of the above
73. Where no provision is made by contract
between partners for the determination of
duration of their partnership then it is called _
a) Partnership at will
b) Fixed term partnership
c) Particular partnership d) None of these
74. If partners agreed to share profits of an illegal
business then it is ____
a) void b) voidable c) valid d) none
75. When the delivery of goods are taken placed
by way of handing over the document of title is
known as ____
a) Actual delivery b) Symbolic delivery
c) constructive delivery d) none of these
76. A condition is:
a) Not essential to the main purpose of the
contract
b) Essential to the main purpose of the contract
c) A stipulation collateral to the main purpose
of the contract d) None of these
77. An intentional misrepresentation amounts to _
a) undue influence b) misrepresentation
c) fraud d) mistake
78. X and Y enters in to an agreement to share the
profits of an illegal business. Then the
agreement is ______
a) Valid b) Void
c) Voidable d) Partly valid
79. A partner can be expelled by majority of
partners in good faith.
a) True b) False
80. A contract dependent on the happening or non
happening of future uncertain event, is a
a) Uncertain contract
b) Contingent contract
c) Void contract d) Voidable contract
81. Unless otherwise agreed all partners have
equal rights in conduct and management of
the partnership business.
a) True b) False
82. Special damages can be claimed by the
aggrieved party ________
a) Where he has brought to the notice of the
other party the special circumstances of the
case at the time of entering into the contract
b) Where he has brought to the notice of the
other party the special circumstances of the
case at any time before the breach of the
contract
c) Where he presumed that the other party
has knowledge of special circumstances of the
case d) In all the above cases
83. Newton owes Rs.18,000 to Johnson. Johnson
promises to accept Rs.10,000 in full
satisfaction of the original debt. Then the
agreement is:
a) unenforceable b) voidable
c) valid d) illegal
84. A Master ask the servant to sell the goods to
him at the price less than the market price.
Then the contract can be avoided on the
ground of ______
a) Fraud b) Misrepresentation
c) Undue influence d) Coercion
85. Which of the following sale is valid?
a) Sale by Mercantile Agent
b) Sale by one of the joint owner
c) Sale by the party in possession of goods
under a voidable contract
d) All of the above
86. The Right of lien is available to an unpaid seller
who is possession of goods _____
a) Where the goods have been sold without
any stipulation as to credit
b) On the expiry of the term of credit period
c) On the buyer becomes insolvent
d) In all the above situations
87. Mistake relating to the identity of the subject
matter by both the parties. Then it is ____
a) Unilateral Mistake b) Bilateral Mistake
c) Not a mistake d) Misrepresentation
88. A contract which is created without the
consent of the party then it is ____
a) Valid b) Void c) Voidable d) None
89. Partnership in a banking business becomes
illegal when the number of persons exceeds __
a) 10 b) 20 c) 50 d) 100
90. A offers to sell his house to B who agrees to
purchase but subject to approval by B’s
solicitor. Which one of the statement is
correct.
a) B’s statement is absolute and unqualified
b) B’s statement is not absolute and
unqualified
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None
91. Partnership at will not be compulsorily
dissolved if ____
a) One of the partners becomes insolvent
b) The business of the firm becomes illegal
c) Only one of the several businesses becomes
illegal d) None
92. The contract where the consent of the party is
obtained by undue influence then it is _____
a) Valid b) Void c) Voidable d) None
93. Which of the following statements are true?
a) Every partner is not an agent of the other
partners
b) The profits may be distributed equally
among partners
c) The liability of the partners is limited
d) None of the above
94. A and B enters into contract to sell the goods.
B to get 300 as wages. Then the relationship
between A and B is _______
a) Master & Servant b) Partners
c) Either (a) or (b) d) None
95. The damages arising due to some special or
unusual circumstances are ______
a) Recoverable b) Unrecoverable
c) Recoverable at the discretion of the default
party if there is a prior notice
d) Cannot be claimed as a matter of right
96. Parties to a contract are yet to perform their
promises. This is a type of _____
a) Executed contract b) Voidable contract
c) Executory contract d) Void contract
97. Yatra Travel operates A.C. Buses from Mumbai
to Nashik. The bus is standing in bus stand in
Mumbai waiting for passengers. This is a ____
offer.
a) Internal b) External
c) Express d) Implied
98. A person entering into a contract with a minor
____
a) Is responsible for losses arising out of the
contract
b) Is responsible for all the losses
c) Is Responsible for giving compensation
granted in a suit
d) Cannot sue a minor.
2nd Session
Part A – General Economics
1. Which system of note issue prevails in India at
present______
a) Minimum Reserve System
b) Proportional Reserve System
c) Fiduciary Reserve System
d) None of these
2. Globalisation has made Indian market
as________
a) Buyers Market b) Sellers Market
c) Monopoly Market d) Monopsony Market
3. As MODVAT had defects, so it was _______
a) Replaced by VAT b) Replaced by CENVAT
c) Replaced by Corporate tax
d) None of these
4. SEBI is __________
a) Statutory body b) Advisory body
c) Constitutional body d) None of these
5. Bank rate is called _________
a) Discount rate b) Repo rate
c) Reserve repo rate d) Lending rate
6. According to 2001 census to the highest urban
population________
a) UP b) Maharastra
c) Tamil Nadu d) Kerala
7. Franchising is one of the method of ________
a) Liberlisation b) Globalisation
c) Privatisation d) None of these
8. Customs duties are levied on __________
a) Only exports b) Only imports
c) Both exports & imports d) None of these
9. Upward rising in Administered price levels
leads to ________
a) Demand – pull inflation
b) Cost – push inflation
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of these.
10. VAT is levied by __________
a) Central Government b) State Government
c) Both (a) & (b) d) All the above.
11. Supply of a commodity is ______ concept.
a) Stock Concept b) Flow concept
c) Both (a) & (b) d) Whole sale concept
12. Under which market condition firms make only
normal profit in the long run __________
a) Oligopoly b) Monopoly
c) Monopolistic Competition d) Duopoly
13. Most of the unemployment in India is_______
a) Voluntary b) Structural
c) Frictional d) Technical
14. On an average one post office in India serves _
a) 100 person b) 500 persons
c) 6.174 persons d) 7,176 persons
15. In perfect competition, since the firm is a price
taker, which curve among the following will be
a straight line _______
a) MC b) AC c) TC d) MR
16. Density of population lowest in _______ state.
a) Arunachal Pradesh b) Megalaya
c) Madhya Pradesh d) Goa
17. Normal good have _____
a) Zero income elasticity
b) Negative income elasticity.
c) Positive income elasticity
d) Infinite income elasticity
18. Which of the following function the modern
banks do not perform _________
a) Issue of letter of credit
b) Publishing of statistics
c) Handling of foreign exchange
d) Conducting economic survey.
19. Monopolist excess capacity ______ in the firm.
a) Always exists b) Some times exists
c) Never exists d) None of the above.
20. In which of the following situations firm
encounters shutdown point.
a) MC is equals to price at the profit
maximizing level of output.
b) AFC is equals to price at the profit
maximizing level of output.
c) AVC is equals to price at the profit
maximizing level of output.
d) ATC is equals to price at the profit
maximizing level of output.
21. Which one of the following is envelop curve __
a) Average variable cost curve
b) Average total cost curve.
c) Long run average cost curve
d) Short run average cost curve.
22. In a capitalist economy the allocation of
resources is performed by
a) Producers b) Government
c) Planners d) Price Mechanism.
23. Government of India has replaced FERA by ___
a) The competition Act b) FRBMA
c) MRTP Act d) FEMA.
24. Long run investment loans to various countries
are given by:
a) World Bank b) World trade organisation
c) International Monetary fund
d) None of the above
25. Stagflation means _____
a) Inflation with recession
b) Deflation with recession
c) Inflation galloping like a stag
d) None of the above
26. Inequalities of income do not perpetuate in __
a) Socialism b) Mixed Economies
c) Capitalism d) None
27. Indian agriculture is characterized by _____
a) Gamble of Mansoon
b) Disguised unemployment
c) Sub-division and fragmentation of land
holdings d) All of the above
28. Economic infrastructure comprises of ___
a) Banking & financial institutions
b) Sanitation
c) Drinking water facilities
d) None of the above
29. _____ port handles maximum traffic among
major pots of India
a) Kandla b) Kochin
c) Mumbai d) Visakhapatnam
30. CRR is determined in India by ______
a) Minister of finance b) SBI
c) RBI d) Parliament
31. Find the MC at 67 unit?
Units cost
output
0 10
Total cost 100 200 3
a) 10 b) 40 c) 30
32. Find AFC of 4 units of output
Output 0 4
Total cost 20 24
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4
33. In oligopoly the kink on the
due to:
a) Discontinuity in MR
b) Discontinuity in AR
c) Fulfillment of the assum
cut is followed by others an
by a firm not followed by oth
d) Price war among the firms
34. If there exists more exports
then it is called _____
a) Balance of payment defici
b) Balance of payment surplu
c) Balance of trade deficit
d) Balance of trade surplus
35. Personal income tax is sha
state government acco
recommendations of ______
a) Finance commission
b) Planning commission
c) Market commission
d) None of the above
36. Which of the following state
a) World bank provides deb
borrowers
b) World bank provides loan
institutional investors
c) World bank provides loan
need money
d) World bank provides loa
countries
37. Price discrimination is allowe
a) Monopoly
b) Monopolistic competition
c) Perfect competition
d) Oligopoly
38. In India agriculture, trade and small sca
industries get credit facilities through th
respective institutions.
a) NABARD, EXIM, SIDBI
b) EXIM, NABARD, IDBI
c) IDBI, NABARD, EXIM
d) None of the above
39. In India ____ is not a cause of low death rate:
a) Spread of Education
b) Control of Famines
c) Abolition of Joint Family System
d) Expanded Medical Facilities
40. The supply of commodity implies:
a) Actual product of a good
b) Stock available for sale
c) Total existing stock of the good
d) The amount of goods offered for sale at
particular price per unit of time.
41. Fiscal Policy means ________
a) planning policy b) credit policy
c) taxation policy
d) Public expenditure, public debt & publ
revenue policies
42. Find AFC at 3rd unit of output
Units of output 0 1 2 3
Total cost 300 1000 2000 3000
a) 100 b) 150 c) 200 d) 300
43. Money is most liquid of all assets because ___
a) It includes shares and equities
b) money itself is a medium of exchange
c) It does not have general acceptability
d) It has few functions
44. Find the correct Match.
a) Science of wealth - L.Robbins.
b) Science of material wellbeing – Marshall
c) Science of choice making – Paul.Samuelson
d) Science of Growth and Development
Adam Smith
ANSWERS
Key – 1
Session - Part – A – FUNDAMENTALS OF ACCOUNTING
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. C
6. C 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. A
11. D 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. B
16. D 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. A
21. A 22. C 23. B 24. D 25. C
26. A 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. C
31. B 32. D 33. B 34. D 35. A
36. B 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. B
41. D 42. A 43. D 44. A 45. D
46. A 47. C 48. A 49. C 50. A
51. C 52. C 53. B 54. B 55. C
56. C 57. D 58. D 59. D
Part – B – MERCANTILE LAWS
60. A 61. A 62. A 63. B 64. B
65. B 66. C 67. D 68. A 69. B
70. A 71. D 72. D 73. A 74. A
75. B 76. B 77. C 78. B 79. A
80. B 81. A 82. A 83. C 84. C
85. D 86. D 87. B 88. B 89. A
90. B 91. C 92. C 93. B 94. A
95. C 96. C 97. D 98. D
Key – 2
Session - Part – A – GENERAL ECONOMICS
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. A
6. B 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. B
11. B 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. D
16. A 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. C
21. C 22. D 23. D 24. A 25. A
26. A 27. D 28. A 29. A 30. C
31. C 32. D 33. C 34. D 35. A
36. D 37. A 38. A 39. C 40. D
41. D 42. A 43. B 44. B
Regards,
Aryan Singhania
CAclubindia
