i still cant understand..
plz help me...
plz show detailed workings
Sunshine
(Helping All)
(10575 Points)
Replied 08 October 2010
this is the detailed working only..u just need to multiply the figures with the assumed discounted rates (18% and 19% and do interpolation)...ask me if there's any problem...what point u dont understand??
Manoj jain
(Intern)
(535 Points)
Replied 08 October 2010
Agreed with Sneha.. correct answer is 18.11%
Sunshine
(Helping All)
(10575 Points)
Replied 08 October 2010
@ freak guy...dont try to read and understand...solve it urself and apply the process...then u will be able to do it...apply interpolation here...
CA Nagendra
(CA)
(1788 Points)
Replied 08 October 2010
I think "freak guy" and all other friends got his answer.
Sneha bagla is 100% correct toward her approach. However, if any one have still confusion about calculation part, you can see this detail calculation.
CA Nagendra
(CA)
(1788 Points)
Replied 08 October 2010
I think earlier calculation is not visible clearly.
You can down load the same solution as suggested in earlier post from the attachment.
CA Nagendra
(CA)
(1788 Points)
Replied 08 October 2010
Originally posted by : Sneha Bagla | ||
thanx for uploading this sir......... |
Wel come sneha bagla
CA. Abhishek K. Pandey
(Manager (Advance))
(901 Points)
Replied 09 October 2010
Sunshine
(Helping All)
(10575 Points)
Replied 09 October 2010
how can u put the value...its unknown..P5=2.737/(Ke-0.10) thats what we have to calculate...
CA. Abhishek K. Pandey
(Manager (Advance))
(901 Points)
Replied 09 October 2010
Sunshine
(Helping All)
(10575 Points)
Replied 09 October 2010
when u discount all the future values then only u will get the present value( present price of the share)...thats the logic...
CA. Abhishek K. Pandey
(Manager (Advance))
(901 Points)
Replied 10 October 2010
CA. Abhishek K. Pandey
(Manager (Advance))
(901 Points)
Replied 10 October 2010
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