Cost of Capital - FM Question.

Page no : 2

(Guest)

i still cant understand..

plz help me...

plz show detailed workings


Sunshine (Helping All) (10575 Points)
Replied 08 October 2010

this is the detailed working only..u just need to multiply the figures with the assumed discounted rates (18% and 19% and do interpolation)...ask me if there's any problem...what point u dont understand??


Manoj jain (Intern) (535 Points)
Replied 08 October 2010

Agreed with Sneha.. correct answer is 18.11% 

1 Like

Sunshine (Helping All) (10575 Points)
Replied 08 October 2010

@ freak guy...dont try to read and understand...solve it urself and apply the process...then u will be able to do it...apply interpolation here...


CA Nagendra (CA) (1788 Points)
Replied 08 October 2010

I think "freak guy" and all other friends got his answer.

Sneha bagla is 100% correct toward her approach. However, if any one have still confusion about calculation part, you can see this detail calculation.



Sunshine (Helping All) (10575 Points)
Replied 08 October 2010

thanx for uploading this sir.........


CA Nagendra (CA) (1788 Points)
Replied 08 October 2010

I think earlier calculation is not visible clearly.

You can down load the same solution as suggested in earlier post from the attachment.


Attached File : 31 dividend policy question.pdf downloaded: 173 times

CA Nagendra (CA) (1788 Points)
Replied 08 October 2010

Originally posted by : Sneha Bagla

thanx for uploading this sir.........

Wel come sneha bagla


CA. Abhishek K. Pandey (Manager (Advance)) (901 Points)
Replied 09 October 2010

Ok. But, how Po=1.2*PVIF(Ke,1)+..........+(2.488+P5)PVIF(Ke,5) ?????? Also, if Price of share isn't changing, then why can't we put the value in P5=2.737/(Ke-0.10).

Sunshine (Helping All) (10575 Points)
Replied 09 October 2010

how can u put the value...its unknown..P5=2.737/(Ke-0.10) thats what we have to calculate...



CA. Abhishek K. Pandey (Manager (Advance)) (901 Points)
Replied 09 October 2010

OK. But whats the logic of Po=1.2*PVIF(Ke,1)+..........+(2.488+P5)PVIF(Ke,5) ??????

CA Aakash Gupta (CA ) (44 Points)
Replied 09 October 2010

hi 

1(1+.20)/20 + .20 = 26%
 


Sunshine (Helping All) (10575 Points)
Replied 09 October 2010

when u discount all the future values then only u will get the present value( present price of the share)...thats the logic...


CA. Abhishek K. Pandey (Manager (Advance)) (901 Points)
Replied 10 October 2010

Yes, I know the concept. But, then isn't Po should be equal to discounted value of P5 rather than sum of all future discounted prices ?????????????


CA. Abhishek K. Pandey (Manager (Advance)) (901 Points)
Replied 10 October 2010

Ok Ok I got the answer. But not in that way, I discount dividends and finally got the solution. :-0


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