Shashank (Article) (65 Points)
17 September 2009Say there are 2 co-owners.They have built two houses.So each co-owner has a 50% share in each house. Each of the co-owners is occupying one house for residential purpose throughout the previous year.How do i calculate income from house property in this case?
Dintakurthi Tirumala
(CA FINAL)
(15994 Points)
Replied 06 October 2009
It's like a self occupied proparty for both of owners
ashish gupta
( student)
(1922 Points)
Replied 06 October 2009
Yes this is like one self occupied property for both the owners n no income from house property.
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