Max Payne
(employed)
(2574 Points)
Replied 28 May 2014
i think i got 95.82... but i dont remember... i think i had made a mistake in that first cos i hadnt calculated DPS3 for calculating P2 but took it with DPS2... i realised the mistake and made a correction there... anything similar??
MAYUR BIYANI
(Assistant Manager-Taxation & Accounts)
(142 Points)
Replied 28 May 2014
Vineet Aggarwal
(Article Assistant)
(144 Points)
Replied 28 May 2014
Raunak
(CA Final)
(227 Points)
Replied 28 May 2014
Well i must say this was far way too straight paper that one can get ever, so perhaps corrections are gonna be tough. Quite a few questions were directly from practice manual..
A lil detailed view :
1.a.Easy.Dividend Policy
b.Easy.Equated Annual Cost
c.Cost of Debentures formula
d.International Finance.Repeated.Practice Manual
2.a.Capital Budgeting.Tricky.New
b.M&A.Manageable.
3.a.Mutual Funds.Easy.Practice Manual.
b.International Finance.Conceptual
4.a.Easy.Same asked in FR paper.EVA can be -ve, no problem with tat
b.Capital Budgeting.Conceptual
5.a.Factoring
b.Easy.Repeated.Practice Manual
6.a.Bonds.Conceptual with basics
b.Concept of EMI.Asked only once till now.Conceptual
c.Theory.Capital Budgeting i guess
7.a.Practice Manual
b.Practice Manual
c.Practice Manual
d.Practice Manual
d.New
So, overall .. if you have studied even the basics with full coverage..passing is not a problem at all , exemption only if full efforts put in.
From Practice Manual : Around 40 marks.
International Finance : around 21
Capital Budgeting : around 20
CA D. Singhal
(CA )
(490 Points)
Replied 28 May 2014
Please correct me if I am wrong but even if NOPAT is less than wacc×ce, we can't conceptually write eva as -ve, we should rather say that there is nil EVA. #I strongly think I have read that in insti mat somewhere
PRATIK
(student)
(34 Points)
Replied 28 May 2014
Raunak
(CA Final)
(227 Points)
Replied 28 May 2014
@ pratik ur right
@ D.Singhal : https://220.227.161.86/19335sm_fr_finalnew_cp10.pdf
page 10.27. says RIL s EVA is negative, therefore no restriction to say that it should be written as nil. Moreover its called shareholders wealth measure and is also a registered trademark.
Raunak
(CA Final)
(227 Points)
Replied 28 May 2014
well i believe the answer for 1.a. is 104.40 something.
This is also known as two phase model
Solution according to me :
(4)(1.20)(0.8696)+ (4)(1.20)(1.20)(0,7561) + (4)(1.20)(1.20)(1.10)(0.7561) / 0.15-0.10 --->Terminal Value
=4.8*0.8696 + 5.76*0.7561 + 6.34*0.7561/0.05
=4.17+4.36+95.87
=104.40
PRATIK
(student)
(34 Points)
Replied 28 May 2014
Raunak
(CA Final)
(227 Points)
Replied 28 May 2014
Indian Japan was tricky
The quote should be JPY/INR that is JPY/Dollar * 1/INR/Dollar
and most importantly the value u get should be the denominatior ie 10,000,000/ JPY/INR
Remember the exporter is paying .
Use the logical sense too
My mistake - I multiplied with JPY/INR instead of dividing :(
However the second part of question i can get full marks :)
Rajat Grover
(article)
(23 Points)
Replied 28 May 2014