Residual value= asset cost/ end of life lower of CA or Fvlcd this should be the correct if the measurement criteria is correct).
Or else it’s simoly = cost of asset/sale value
This gives your the percentage of residual value from the total asset cost
No big case studied found because, IFRS, founder of IndAS also mentions that residual value is insignificant. Please don’t hesitate to contact me for further queries.