Bhai,
U r most welcome..........!
3CA is required or not?
No, It is not required, but I think ur reason is not correct since the direction {Rule 6G} to submit 3CA comes from sec 44AB, which is related to turnover limits. So if a company is not falling under 44AB then no need to comply the rules made thereunder.
Further, Bhai for companies act, audit will be required for days in March 2010 since unaudited Financials cannot be presented in the AGM and as mentioned above even in case of extended FY (or 1st AGM) - P/L is to be presented since the incorporation of the company + Balance sheet has no underlying period.
So at AGM following AUDITED STATEMENTS shall be presented -
P/L will be prepared since 03.03.2010 to 31.03.2011 and will be presented in the AGM
Balance Sheet as on 31.03.2011
Can the directors make use of unaudited financials for filing the ITR?
In the context of present case- Yes ITR can be filed based on unaudited financials and if necessary Directors can revise it later on.
In general - I think this is more of academic discussion - Act nowhere prohibits return filing based on unaudited financials but the point is why would Directors do such a thing? One can argue that Directors can file the return based on unaudited financials and if necessary then revise it later on based on audit findings.
To put a full stop on this discussion - No ITR cannot be filed unless audit is done, especially after this mandatory e-filing and all, where you cannot submit the audit report separately unless asked for it.
Commencement of Business
When I was writing the first post this thought came to my mind that what will be the answer in case of service provider......So after me it was ur turn of striking the hammer...........:)
First, I would like to say that in case of MANUFACTURING concern, existence of at least single revenue generation transaction is not a pre-condition to prove the "commencement of business" - since production itself amounts to "commencement" and law doesnt wait for the transaction of sale to happen.
Bhai, I am not sure but I think on the same analogy - existence of at least single REVENUE generation transaction in the First PY should not be a precondition to establish the "commencement of business"
So, I feel - if the service provider was having a client + resources to provide the requisite services then this establishes the "commencement of business", even when no such service was performed/ delivered.
Deduction u/s 35 D should be deferred till assesee establishes the "commencement" ?
Yes, and without a doubt - Sec 35D is not a standalone section - it is a part of PGBP only & so long as "Business/Profession" does not come into "commencement" - no treatment can be done in PGBP.
Further, Sec 35D itself says -".........beginning with the previous year in which the business commences....................."